1Z0-1111-25 EXAM SIMULATOR ONLINE | 1Z0-1111-25 LATEST EXAM DISCOUNT

1Z0-1111-25 Exam Simulator Online | 1Z0-1111-25 Latest Exam Discount

1Z0-1111-25 Exam Simulator Online | 1Z0-1111-25 Latest Exam Discount

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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2025 Observability Professional Sample Questions (Q30-Q35):

NEW QUESTION # 30
Which two features are provided by Application Performance Monitoring? (Choose two.)

  • A. Real User Monitoring
  • B. Distributed Tracing
  • C. Capacity Planning
  • D. Java Management

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
OCI Application Performance Monitoring (APM) provides tools to monitor application performance:
Distributed Tracing (A): Tracks requests across microservices, showing latency and dependencies via traces and spans.
Real User Monitoring (C): Captures real user interactions with web applications (e.g., page load times) using a Browser Agent.
Why not B or D?
Capacity Planning (B): Available in Operations Insights, not APM.
Java Management (D): Not a feature of APM; Java Agent is a tool, not a feature.
These features align with APM's focus on performance and user experience.


NEW QUESTION # 31
Choose two FluentD scenarios that apply when using continuous log collection with client-side processing. (Choose two.)

  • A. Monitoring systems that are not currently supported by Management Agent
  • B. Comprehensive monitoring for OKE/Kubernetes
  • C. Managing apps/services which push logs to Object Storage
  • D. Log Source

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
FluentD is an open-source data collector used for continuous log collection with client-side processing in OCI Logging. Two applicable scenarios are:
Managing apps/services which push logs to Object Storage (A): FluentD can be configured to collect logs from applications or services (e.g., Oracle Functions) that write logs to Object Storage buckets. It processes these logs client-side and forwards them to OCI Logging or Logging Analytics.
Comprehensive monitoring for OKE/Kubernetes (B): FluentD is widely used in Kubernetes environments like Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) to collect logs from pods, containers, and nodes. It processes these logs locally before sending them to OCI services for analysis.
Why not C or D?
Monitoring unsupported systems (C): While possible, this is not a primary FluentD scenario in OCI-it's more about extending Management Agent capabilities.
Log Source (D): This is a component of Logging Analytics, not a FluentD scenario.
FluentD's flexibility makes it ideal for these use cases in OCI's observability ecosystem.


NEW QUESTION # 32
You have configured an Alarm Definition in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Monitoring service to send notifications through email. The alarm should resend notifications at specified intervals if the alarm continues to be in the firing state. A subscriber in the Notifications Topic complains about not receiving multiple emails upon failures. Which of the following could be the possible cause of this issue?

  • A. Repeat notification was not enabled while creating the Alarm.
  • B. Resending notifications depends on the total metric streams returned from the query.
  • C. OCI Monitoring service can send only one notification per Alarm Definition when the alarm condition is met.
  • D. Trigger Condition was not configured while defining the Alarm.

Answer: A

Explanation:
For repeated notifications in OCI Monitoring:
Repeat notification was not enabled while creating the Alarm (B): The "Repeat Notification" option must be enabled in the alarm definition, specifying an interval (e.g., every 5 minutes). If disabled, only one notification is sent when the alarm fires, explaining the subscriber's issue.
Why not A, C, or D?
A: False; OCI supports repeat notifications if configured.
C: Trigger condition is mandatory for any alarm; this isn't the issue.
D: Notification frequency isn't tied to metric streams, only the repeat setting.
Repeat Notification ensures ongoing alerts.


NEW QUESTION # 33
What is enabled by the SQL Warehouse application within Operations Insights?

  • A. Consolidated Databases
  • B. Trend and Forecast resource requirements
  • C. Insights into the SQL performance
  • D. Reduced Operations costs

Answer: C

Explanation:
The SQL Warehouse in Operations Insights focuses on SQL-level analysis:
Insights into the SQL performance (A): Provides a centralized repository of SQL performance data (e.g., execution time, resource usage) from monitored databases, enabling detailed analysis and optimization.
Why not B, C, or D?
Trend and Forecast (B): Handled by Capacity Planning in Operations Insights, not SQL Warehouse.
Consolidated Databases (C): A misnomer; it's about data, not database consolidation.
Reduced costs (D): An outcome, not a direct feature.
SQL Warehouse enhances database performance visibility.


NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following capabilities does the performance management feature of Database Management Services offer to a managed database?

  • A. Dynamically modifies database initialization parameters to improve performance
  • B. Automatically invokes full stats gathering of objects to improve performance of regressed SQLs
  • C. Visualizes and performs trend analysis from AWR data to detect issues using AWR Explorer

Answer: C

Explanation:
The performance management feature in Database Management leverages AWR data:
Visualizes and performs trend analysis from AWR data to detect issues using AWR Explorer (B): AWR Explorer displays Automatic Workload Repository data, enabling trend analysis and issue detection (e.g., performance bottlenecks).
Why not A or C?
A: Stats gathering is manual or scheduled, not automatic in this context.
C: Parameter changes require user intervention, not dynamic automation.
AWR Explorer is key for performance insights.


NEW QUESTION # 35
......

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